interpreted Psalm 110:1 in a discussion with the Pharisees.
I feel certain that the Pharisees knew the original Hebrew
as well as anyone. Also, they were the ones trying to trap
by using His own words against Him.
They were trying to find reason to execute Him;
therefore, they were asking Him questions, trying to trap Him.
In that context, while in the temple Jesus asked them:
"What think ye of Christ? Whose son is He?"
The Pharisees said unto Jesus: "The Son of David."
Jesus then asked the Pharisees:
"How then, doth David, in the Spirit, call him Lord, saying,
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand
till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
If David, then, call him Lord, how is He his son?"
None of them were able to answer him a word,
neither dared any to ask Him any more questions.
Although Matthew wrote his gospel in the koine greek,
in which the same greek word (kurios) is used
the four times the word is translated in the English as lord,
the conversation probably took place in Hebrew.
Note the following:
1.) It was the Pharisees that said Messiah was David's Son.
Jesus agreed with them.
2.) Jesus said David was calling the Messiah his (David's) Lord.
3.) Not one of those scholars who knew Hebrew objected
by saying David was not the speaker.
They apparently all agreed that David was indeed the speaker.
4.) Jesus also said that in the Spirit (meaning in the Holy
that David was calling the Messiah his (David's) Lord.
Again, there was not one objection.
5.) In all the passages in the New
verse is quoted, they all use the greek kurios to translate
both the Hebrew YHVH and Adon,
instead of using different greek words for each;
thus making the two equivalent.
6.) As David was King, just what earthly man would David
have addressed as his Sovereign
(Sovereign being one of the meanings of adon)?
7. Quote from Clarke's Commentary on Psalm 110:1:
Where has there ever appeared a prince in whom all these
characters met? There never was one, nor is it possible that
there ever can be one such, the Person excepted to whom the
Psalm is applied by the authority of the Holy Spirit himself.
That the Jews who lived in the time of our Lord believed this
Psalm to have been written by David, and that it spoke of the
Messiah alone, is evident from this, that when our Lord quoted
it, and drew arguments from it in favour of his mission, Matt
22:42, they did not attempt to gainsay it.
Peter, Acts 2:34, and Paul, 1 Cor 15:25; Heb 1:13;
Heb 5:6,10; Heb 7:17; Heb 10:12-13, apply it to show
that Jesus is the Messiah. Nor was there any attempt to
contradict them; not even an intimation that they had
misapplied it, or mistaken its meaning.
Many of the later Jews also have granted that it applied to
the Messiah, though they dispute its application to
Jesus of Nazareth. All the critics and commentators whom
I have consulted apply it to our Lord; nor does it appear to
me to be capable of interpretation on any other ground.
Before I proceed to take a general view of it,
I shall set down the chief of the various readings found
in the MSS. on this Psalm.
Ps 110:1. Said unto my Lord. Instead of la-'Adoniy (OT:113),
"my Lord," one manuscript seems to have read la-Yahweh
(OT:3068), "Yahweh said unto Yahweh, 'Sit thou on my right
hand,'" etc. See De Rossi.
(from Adam Clarke's Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright
(c) 1996 by Biblesoft)
added in bold.
The last point:
8.) Notice that David did not say:
"The LORD WILL SAY unto my Lord."
But David said: "The LORD SAID unto my Lord."
It has already been spoken;
therefore, David's Lord was already in existence at the time.
One additional comment.
Jesus, by asking, "How then, doth David, in the Spirit, call him
Lord,..." indicates that the Messiah is more than a mere man.
If the Messiah was only a mere Son of David,
a mere human descendant of David's,
Jesus would not have said: "How then."
The "How then" indicates that the Messiah
is more that a mere human,
for David would not have addressed another man as his Sovereign.